- Joined
- Apr 9, 2022
I have not researched this question personally, but Richard Evans states that the Wehrmacht was not prosecuted for rape on the Eastern Front, only "racial shame." The German dehumanization of Russians thus reached the point where raping Russian women was said to be impossible.
The situation in the West was different, where if a German soldier was (for example) caught raping French women, he was punished by court-martial. But if Evans is correct, German soldiers were only given a slap on the wrist for raping Russian women, which partially explains why there was so much sexual violence directed at the latter by the former. (We all hear about the Red Army's sexual violence against German women, but for some reason not so much about the Wehrmacht's sexual violence against Slavic women.)
Numerous women who wound up in Wehrmacht brothels said after the war they had been kidnapped and forceably brought there in a similar manner to Japanese comfort women. All of the accounts I have read of this were from Slavic gentile women from Eastern Europe. For a variety of reasons (Nazi racial theory about the Slavic sub-human, greater respect for Western civilization than Eastern Europe, etc) the Wehrmacht behaved considerably less savage in the West than the East.
But regardless we know the Wehrmacht engaged in child-sex trafficking because they procured 15-year olds for their brothels. 15 year olds are not old enough to consent to prostitution. That is Jeffrey Epstein stuff at a systematic level.
Re - Dalton, I have a couple quibbles with his translations. But in general they are basically accurate. Which makes his benign interpretations of Goebbels' numerous genocidal pronouncements completely hilarious.
Do you actually think you are going to persuade non-biased people with this stuff, zo? I mean Dalton says that the passage where Goebbels says that 'in Germany, we have killed these Jews like rats' as non-murderous because
He also interprets "liquidate" in a non-murderous sense despite the fact that it of course means murder as applied to human beings, and the Nazis used it for murder in various other contexts, including a documentary produced by Goebbels which accused the Russians of "liquidiating" the Poles at Katyn.
I mean seriously dude, do you think this is the product of honest linguistic reasoning rather than bias?
Are you willing to quote Dalton here?
No biggie if you'd rather not.
By the way. Why do you merely quibble with Dalton?
Surely from your stance , you need to be refuting and destroying his position outright. Do you feel yourself able to make that case?
On the Western Front, brothels may well have been presented as an "anti-rape measure." But on the Eastern Front they were introduced to prevent German soldiers from having children with the Slavic "Untermenschen." (Condoms were required in the brothels and women underwent forced abortions.)
The Nazis were not "pro-white" bro. Ask a Pole or Russian. They committed genocide against Slavic "subhumans," and you are being anachronistic and silly in claiming them as muh ancestors, given that you are a Burger with 7 ethnicities (probably a couple of which are slavic).
Oh stop this silliness. We've been through this before. This hyperbole doesn't do you any favors.

