There are plenty of documents calling for able-bodied Jews and persons in other ethnic groups to be worked to death, including the famous Wannsee Protocols.
To quote a September 1942 report from Reich Minister of Justice Thierack to Himmler -
"Auslieferung asozialer Elemente aus dem Strafvollzug an den Reichsführer SS zur Vernichtung durch Arbeit. Es werden restlos ausgeliefert die Sicherungsverwahrten, Juden, Zigeuner, Russen und Ukrainer, Polen über 3 Jahre Strafe, Tschechen oder Deutsche über 8 Jahre Strafe nach Entscheidung des Reichsjustizministers." ("The delivery of anti-social elements with penal sentences to the Reichsführer SS, to
be exterminated through labor. All persons in protective custody, Jews, gypsies, Russians, and Ukranians, Poles with more than 3-year sentences, and Germans with more than 8-year sentences, are to be handed over without exception to the Reich Minister of justice.")
It is true that (especially later in the war, with the Nazis particularly desperate for labor) the Nazis were not so keen to have all their slaves die immediately, and issued orders intended to preserve them for a longer period of time. What is odd (perverse to be honest) is that you say the camps were benign even though in the documents to which you refer the Nazis speak of a massive death rate due to how the inmates were being treated.
For example, as Mattogno mentions, the document where Himmler calls for better food refers to a recent death rate of
70,000 out of
136,000 registered prisoners in the camps. That is far higher than the death rate in Soviet gulags, and in a vastly shorter period of time. Does this sound "benign" to you?
On health care, you think you have a btfo because you do not understand or pretend not to understand the distinction between a 25 or 16 or 35 year old with the flu or an injured hand in need of stitches (given rudimentary health care and sent back to work), and a 85 or 5 year old (killed as useless eaters). You define all these people as "non-able bodied." But that does not mean there is not a distinction between them, namely that teenagers and younger adults with the flu or an injured hand can be brought back to working capability easily, and the very old and very young cannot.
Quick question - do you consider the gulags "benign" because they had hospitals and (in contrast to the Nazi camps, where release only happened in a tiny fringe of cases with real political interests at stake) considerable rates of release?
Of course I would say the Nazi death camps were worse than the gulags, but I am not asking about the Nazi camps here. Were the gulags "benign" places because they had hospitals and a very significant rate of release?