Probably super :late:, but is the Calder test applicable to this case, and if so, wouldn't it be next to impossible for Waid to disprove it? I mean, (1) I assume TI is an intentional tort, (2) Waid uniquely or expressly targeted TX when he called AP, and (3) Waid knew or should've known that the harm from his act would be felt in TX.
I can see why Waid is attempting to plead ignorance on the location, but in the end all he's doing is perjuring himself. (:powerlevel: Im just learning about personal jurisdiction in CivPro, so this is a really helpful way for me to apply the elements)