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Wouldn't a lean fuck DSP's credit?
I just watched the old Nick and Null stream on Phil's initla bankruptcy filing. At 01:18:00 (i think) Nick said that if Phil has surrendered the Condo to Midfirst the bank can't claim the difference of 40k should Phil have been granted a chapter 7 bankruptcy. So is all this Limbo that Midfirst is actually doing for naught? Or is this excempt because Midfirst asked for a stay?
I just watched the old Nick and Null stream on Phil's initla bankruptcy filing. At 01:18:00 (i think) Nick said that if Phil has surrendered the Condo to Midfirst the bank can't claim the difference of 40k should Phil have been granted a chapter 7 bankruptcy.
I don't believe Nick actually said that and if he did he's full of shit.
I posted earlier about this but none of us could find a law that clearly discusses these kinds of situations. We all assumed that MidFirst must have some plan because otherwise they would just be wasting money here but our legal eagle autists have either reached the same conclusion as Nick or been unable to figure it out at all due to some really weird wording in CT law. So I'm not sure the relief from stay matters but there is a very good chance Nick was right.
(And fuck, law often isn’t black or white. In many cases you see two lawyers come to completely different conclusions about the legalese neither of which is “wrong”.)
In most cases, you have at least two lawyers looking at the same stuff and coming to opposite conclusions. If they agreed, the case would settle pretty easily.
I seem to recall October 22nd being a deadline for Phil to respond to something. Court case page hasn't added anything, but sometimes stuff doesn't show there. Anything happening here?
A skim of the case docket does not turn up anything for October 22 or any other deadline for the judge/bank. In fact, I can't find a deadline for whatever comes next in this trial-the default judgment earlier this year means Phil isn't entitled to time to respond or even a copy of the filings anymore, but the motion for strict foreclosure filed back in June still has not been acted on and does not contain any sort of deadline.
Foreclosure sales have resumed in CT so the three explanations I can think of are (not in any real order): The judge has a backlog of foreclosure sales to certify after they were shut down for ~half a year, the judge and bank aren't sure how Phil's bankruptcy interacts with this suit either, or the Connecticut court system is just that slow and inept.
This is what I was referring to, though looking at it now, it says a default may be entered beginning on October 22nd, so it doesn't have to have happened yet.
Things move slowly in courts and in Covid world things crawl along, I don't except an update on the same day that Phil had to respond by. He could have a postmarked letter in route if he chose to respond. Time will tell. I except an update next week or so.This is what I was referring to, though looking at it now, it says a default may be entered beginning on October 22nd, so it doesn't have to have happened yet.
Things move slowly in courts and in Covid world things crawl along, I don't except an update on the same day that Phil had to respond by. He could have a postmarked letter in route if he chose to respond. Time will tell. I except an update next week or so.
So he's bankrupt and got a foreclosed home. What next?
Phil didn't enter a plea at all. MidFirst is set up to cut him deep.
Um no you nudnik he did make a plea-deal to meet MidFirst in the courtroom and pretend to litigate it out only to give the judge stereo DX crotch chops but nope Midfirst was pretty hard set on getting the judgment in their favor hence no crotch chops.Phil didn't enter a plea at all. MidFirst is set up to cut him deep.
Forgive my ignorance on the subject but does this mean they will go after him to make up for that money? Or will MidFirst eat the cost? What is the standard procedure for situations like this?Phil didn't enter a plea at all. MidFirst is set up to cut him deep.
They filed in June for a Strict Foreclosure, which seeks to take the property without deficiency. They state their claim (for procedural reasons) as $103k on the loan itself - presumably, this cannot be collected under a strict foreclosure - and just under $2,500 for taxes, insurance, and legal fees. I don't know if they could claim that amount from DSP, but if they do, I'm sure his defense of ignoring everything would be sufficient.Forgive my ignorance on the subject but does this mean they will go after him to make up for that money? Or will MidFirst eat the cost? What is the standard procedure for situations like this?