I guess I don't understand this. Iran has openly attacked the United States and its interests abroad for almost fifty years. Its thin veneer of plausible deniability lies behind terror proxies, but they make little attempt to hide what they're doing. Thousands of Americans are dead through their actions, including its Armed Forces. It is Iranian government policy to bring about the destruction of the United States. The US has tried diplomacy for, what, thirty years now? The hypothetical is that they'll be able to create some sort of a WMD and pass it off to a terror proxy and set it off in a major population center overseas.
So what exactly is the issue here when the President decides enough is enough, and on the tail end of a successful air campaign performed by a US ally, drops a couple of bombs on them? Is it because that US ally was Israel?
Fair enough if the argument is that the US should never have been in the Middle East in the first place, or meddled in Iran in the first place to bring about the revolution, and so on and so forth, but you can't change the past, and it doesn't justify Iran shedding American blood. I thought the whole point of American exceptionalism was that it doesn't go both ways.
